UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER I-GENERAL STUDIES
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1- Consider The
Following Types of
Vehicles:
I.
Full battery
electric vehicles
II.
Hydrogen fuel
cell vehicles
III.
Fuel
cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the
above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c) All the three
d)
None
Answer - C
2- With reference
to Unmanned aerial Vehicles (UAVS), consider the following statements:
I.
All types of UAVs
can do vertical landing.
II.
All types of UAVs
can do automated hovering.
III.
All types of UAVs
can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d) None
Answer - D
3-In the context
of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I.
Cobalt
II.
Graphite
III.
Lithium
IV.
How many of the
above usually make up battery cathodes?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c) Only three
d)
All the four
Answer – C
4 - Consider the
following
I.
Cigarette butts
II.
Eyeglass lenses
III.
Car tyres
How many of them
contain plastics?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c) All the three
d)
None
Answer - C
5-Consider the following substances:
I.
Ethanol
II.
Nitroglycerine
III.
Urea
Coal gasification
technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
a)
Only one
b) Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer - B
6-What is the
common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL20,
HMX and
LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
a)
These are
alternative to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
b) These are explosive in military weapons
c)
These are
high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
d)
These are fuels
for rocket propulsion
Answer - B
7-Consider the
following statements:
I.
It is expected
that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II.
Majorana 1 chip
has been introduced Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III.
Deep learning is
a subject of machine learning.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - C
8-With reference
to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I.
They are man-made
proteins.
II.
They stimulate
immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III.
They are used in
treating viral infections like that Nipah virus.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer - D
9-Consider the
following statements:
I.
No virus can
survive in ocean waters.
II.
No virus can
infect bacteria.
III.
No virus can
change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d) None
Answer - D
10-Consider the
following statements:
Statement I:
Activated carbon is a good and an attractive
tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants
from various industries.
Statement II:
Activated carbon exhibits a large surface
area and strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statements III:
Activated carbon can be easily synthesized
from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of
them explain Statement I.
b)
Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.
c) Only one of the Statement II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d)
Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer - A
11-Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
Studies indicate that carbon dioxide
emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon
emissions.
Statements 2:
Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone
while manufacturing cement.
Statement 3:
Limestone is converted into lime during
clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following
is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both statement 2
and statement 3 are correct and both of them explain statement 1
b) Both statement 2 and statement 3 are correct but only one
of them explains statement 1
c)
Only one of the
statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains statement 1
d)
Neither statement
2 nor statement 3 is correct
Answer - B
12-Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
At the 28th United Nations Climate
Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on
Climate and Health’.
Statement 2:
The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health
is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize
health sector.
Statement 3:
If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the
resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement 2
and Statement 3 are correct and both of them explain Statement 1
b)
Both Statement 2
and Statement 3 are correct but only one of them explains Statement 1
c) Only one of the Statements 2 and 3 is correct and that
explains Statement 1
d)
Neither Statement
2 nor Statement 3 is correct
Answer - C
13-Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
Scientific studies suggest that a shift is
taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement 2:
Solar flares and associated coronal mass
ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of
energy.
Statement 3:
As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water
tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above Statements?
a)
Both Statement 2
and Statement 3 are correct and both of them explain Statement 1
b) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct but only one
of
them explains Statements 1
c)
Only one of the
Statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains Statement 1
d)
Neither Statement
2 nor Statement 3 is correct
Answer - B
14-Consider the
following statements:
Statements 1:
Articles 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate
change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development
and climate change.
Statement 2:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate
change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement 3:
Articles 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate
change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their
climate targets.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statements 2 and Statement 3 are correct and both of
them explain Statement 1
b)
Both Statements 2
and Statement 3 are correct but only one of them explains Statement 1
c)
Only one of the
Statement 2 and 3 is correct and that explains Statement 1
d)
Neither Statement
2 nor Statement 3 is correct.
Answer - A
15-Which one of
the following launched the ‘Nature Solution Finance Hub for Asia and the
Pacific?
a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
b)
The Asian
infrastructure investment Bank (AIIB)
c)
The new
Development Bank (NDB)
d)
The International
Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer - A
16-With reference
to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
I.
It can be used as
a way of carbon sequestration
II.
It can be a
valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing
III.
In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for
combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low carbon fuel.
Select the
correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d)
None of the above
statement is correct
Answer - C
17-Regarding
Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the
following statements:
I.
It is an
omnivorous crustacean
II.
Its natural
habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III.
In its natural
habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the
statements given above is /are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 only
d) 2 and 3
Answer - D
18-Consider the
following statements:
I.
Carbon dioxide
(CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t co2/capita
II.
in terms of co2
emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III.
Electricity and
heat producers are the largest sources of co2 emissions in India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - C
19- Consider the
following pairs:
Plant Description
I.
Cassava : Woody Shrub
II.
Ginger : Herb
with pseudo stem
III.
Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
IV.
Mint : Annual shrub
V.
Papaya : Woody
shrub
How many of the
above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only two
b) Only three
c)
Only four
d)
All the five
Answer - B
20- with
reference to the plant earth, consider the following statements:
I.
Rain forests more
oxygen than that produced by oceans
II.
Marine phytoplankton
and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen
III.
Well-oxygenated
surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b) 2 only
c)
1 and 3
d)
None of the above
statements is correct
Answer - B
21-consider the
following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I.
He possessed
great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II.
He desired his
countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of
human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer-C
22- consider the
following subjects with regard to non-cooperation programme :
I.
Boycott of law –
courts and foreign cloth
II.
Observance of
strict non- violence
III.
Retention of
titles and honours without using them in public
IV.
Establishment of
Panchayat for settling disputes
How many of the
above were parts of non-cooperation programme?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c) Only three
d)
All the four
Answer - c
23- the
irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was
a) A water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
b)
A large wheel
with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
c)
A larger earthen
pot driven by bullocks
d)
A large water
buckets pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer – A
24- who among the
following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’,
‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?
a) Mahendravarman 1
b)
Simhavishnu
c)
Narasimhavarman
d)
Simhavarman
Answer - A
25 – fa-hien
(Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the region of
a)
Samudragupta
b) Chandragupta 2
c)
Kumargupta 1
d)
Skandagupta
Answer - B
26- Who among the
following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya,
the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and
the Neighbouring islands?
a)
Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
b)
Prataparudra(Kakatiya)
c) Rajendra 1 (Chola)
d)
Vishnuvardhana
(Hoysala)
Answer - C
27– With
reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following
Territorial Region River flowing in the region
I.
Asmaka : Godavari
II.
Kamboja : Vipas
III.
Avanti : Mahanadi
IV.
Kosala : Sarayu
How many of the
pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b) Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All the four
Answer - B
28-The first
Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu
Digamber Paluskar in
a)
Delhi
b)
Gwalior
c)
Ujjain
d) Lahore
Answer – D
29- Ashokan
inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were
important officers at the
a)
Village – level
administration
b) District – level administration
c)
Provincial
administration
d)
Level of the central
administration
Answer - B
30- Consider the
following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I.
The Congress
declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be
its objective.
II.
It was to be
implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the
next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government
resorted to repression.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - C
31.With
reference to investments, consider the following:
I.
Bonds
II.
Hedge funds
III.
Stocks
IV.
Venture Capital
How many of the
above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
a)
Only one
b) Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All the four
Answer
– B
32.Which
of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I.
Buying and
selling Government bonds
II.
Buying and
selling foreign currency
III.
Pension fund
management
IV.
Lending to
private companies
V.
Printing and
distributing currency notes
Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
a)
I and II only
b)
II, III and IV
c)
I, III, IV and V
d) I, II, and V
Answer - D
33- With
reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
|
|
Organization |
Some of its functions |
It works under |
|
1 |
Directorate of Enforcement |
Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act,
2018 |
Internal Security Division-1, Ministry of Home Affairs |
|
2 |
Directorate of Revenue intelligence |
Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act,
1962 |
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
|
3 |
Directorate General of Systems and Data Management |
Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers
for better policy and nabbing tax evaders |
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of
the above rows is the information correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b) Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer -B
34- Consider the
following statements:
I.
The Reserve Bank
of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business
Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR)
II.
In India, a
company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely
non-financial in nature
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
I only
b) II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer - B
35- Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
In India, income from allied agricultural
activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted
from any tax.
Statement 2:
in India, rural agricultural land is not
considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statements 1
and statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1
b)
Both Statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1
c)
Statement 1 is
correct but Statement 2 is not correct
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
Answer - D
36- Consider the
following statements:
I.
India has joined
the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II.
India is a
resource – rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III.
The Parliament in
2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and
composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
I and II only
b)
II and III only
c) I and III only
d)
I, II and III
Answer – C
37- Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
As regards returns from an investment in a
company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk
than stockholders.
Statement 2:
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas
stockholders are its owners.
Statements 3:
For repayment
purpose, bond holders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both
of them explain Statement I
b)
Both Statement II
and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c)
Only one of the
Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d)
Neither Statement
II nor Statement III is correct.
Answer - A
38. Consider the
following statements:
I.
India accounts for a very large portion of
all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II.
Indian’s stock market has grown rapidly in
the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some points of time.
III.
There is no regulatory body either to warn
the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on
unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are
correct
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d)I, II and III
Answer -A
39. Consider the
following statements:
Statement I:
circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement
II:
Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statements III:
Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which
one of the following is the correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)
Both statement II and statement III are
correct and both of them explain statement I
(b)
Both statement II and statement III are
correct but only one of them explain statement I
(c)
Only one of the statements II and III is
correct and that explain statement I
(d) Neither statement II nor statement III is correct.
Answer -A
40- Consider the
following statements:
I.
Capital receipts
create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government
II.
Borrowings and
disinvestment are capital receipts.
III.
Interest received
on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2
only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - A
41. Consider the following countries:
I.
Austria
II.
Bulgaria
III.
Serbia
IV.
Sweden
V.
North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic
Treaty Organization?
a)
Only three
b) Only four
c)
Only five
d)
All the six
Answer
– B
42. Consider the following countries:
I.
Bolivia
II.
Brazil
III.
Colombia
IV.
Ecuador
V.
Paraguay
VI.
Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above
countries?
a)
Only two
b) Only three
c)
Only four
d)
Only five
Answer
– B
43. consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonle Sap
III. patos Lagoon
Through how many
of them does the equator pass.
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer - A
43.consider the following statements about turmeric during the year
2022-23
I.
India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in
the world.
II.
More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III.
Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are
major turmeric producing states in India.
Which of the statements given above are
correct
(a)
I and II only
(b)
II and III only
(c)
I and III only
(d) I, I and III
Answer – D
44. Consider the following the following statements about turmeric
during the year 2022-2023:
I.
India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in
the world.
II.
More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III.
Maharashtra,Telengana,Karnataka and Tamilnadu are major turmeric
producing States in India
Which of the
following statements given above are correct?
a)
I and II only
b)
II and III only
c)
I and III only
d) I, II and III
Answer – D
45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of
continental drift?
I.
The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with
those from Western African.
II.
The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau
when the two continents lay side by side.
III.
The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to
have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
I and III only
b)
I and II only
c)
I, II and III
d)
II and III only
Answer
– C
46. Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
The amount of
dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate is more
in subtropical equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II:
Subtropical and
temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
a)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and
Statement II explains Statement I
b)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
Statement II does not explain Statement I
c)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
d)
Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer
– C
47- Consider the
following statements:
Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the
isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while
crossing the oceans.
Statements II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer
than that over the landmasses in the Northen Hemisphere.
Which of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both
Statements I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
b)
Both Statements II
and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
c)
Statement I is
correct but Statement II is not correct
d)
Statement I is
not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer - A
48- Consider the
following statements:
Statement I:
In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk
is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable
or least permeable rock.
Statement II:
chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement 2
and Statement 3 are correct and both of them explain Statement 1
b) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct but only one
of them explains Statement 1
c)
Only one of the
Statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains Statemen 1
d)
Neither Statement
2 is nor Statement 3 is correct
Answer
– B
49- Consider the
following Statement:
I.
Without the
atmosphere temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the
Earth’s surface.
II.
Heat absorbed and
trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III.
Atmosphere’s
gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping
radiation.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
I and III only
b) I and II only
c)
I, II and III
d)
II and III only
Answer - D
50- Consider the
following statements about the Gokul Mission.
I.
It is important
for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous
animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II.
It was initiated
to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a
scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I
and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer - C
51- Consider the
following statements:
I.
Panchayats at the
intermediate level exists in all States.
II.
To be eligible to
be Member of a panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the
age of thirty years.
III.
The Chief
Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position
of panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding
the distribution of net proceeds of States, between the State and panchayats at
the intermediate level.
Which of the
statements given above are not correct?
a)
I and II only
b)
II and III only
c)
I and III only
d) I, II and III
Answer-
D
52- Consider the
following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:
I.
It is a regional
organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II.
It came into
existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III.
Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding
member States of BIMSTEC.
IV.
In BIMSTEC, the sub sector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Which of the
statement given above is/are correct?
a)
I and II
b)
II and III
c)
I and IV
d)
I only
Answer - D
53- Who among the
following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace
Prize’?
I.
The president of
India
II.
The Prime
Minister of India
III.
The chief Justice
of India
IV.
The Leader of
Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the
correct answer using the code given below.
a)
2 and 4 only
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
2, 3 and 4
d)
1 and 3 only
Answer - C
54-GPS-Aided Geo
Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide
necessary statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I.
It is designed to
provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II.
It will allow
more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.
III.
It will provide
benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the
correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 only
d)
1 and 2 only
Answer – D
55. Consider the
following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palasia, Paris in
February 2025:
I.
Co-chaired with India, the event
builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the
Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II.
Along with other countries, US and UK
also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II only
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer - A
56- Consider the
following pairs:
I.
International
Year of the Women Farmer : 2026
II.
International
Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism :
2027
III.
International
Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV.
International
Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defense : 2029
How many of the
pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All the four
Answer – D
57- Consider the
following statements with regard to BRICKS:
I.
16th
BRICKS Summit was held under the Chairperson of Russia in Kazan.
II.
Indonesia has
become a full member of BRICS.
III.
The theme of the
16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global
Development and Security.
Which of the
Statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
1 and 3
d)
1 only
Answer – A
58- Consider the
following statements about Lokpal:
I.
The power of
Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public
servants posted outside India.
II.
The Chairperson
or a Member shall not be a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union
Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired,
has to be its Chairperson.
III.
The Chairperson
or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the
date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV.
Lokpal cannot
inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of
India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 4
d)
None of the above
statements is correct.
Answer - A
59- Consider the
following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I.
The event was
held in Delhi, India.
II.
Indian men beat
Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men
category.
III.
Indian women beat
Nepal with a score of 54-36 In the final to become the World Champion in women
category.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - A
60- Consider the
following statements:
I.
In the finals of
45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the
world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player, Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II.
Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the
record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - B
61- Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
Some rare earth elements are used in the
manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement 2:
Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent
properties.
Which of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains statement 1
b)
Both statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2
c)
Statement 1 is
correct but Statement 2 is not correct
d)
Statement 1 is
not correct but Statement 2 is correct
Answer - A
62- Consider the
following Statements:
I.
Indian Railways
have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway
system by 2028.
II.
‘Kavach’ is an
Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III.
‘Kavach’ system
consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the
statements given above are not correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - D
63- Consider the
following space missions:
I.
Axiom -4
II.
SpaDex
III.
Gaganyaan
How many of the
space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer - C
64- With
reference to India’s defence consider, consider the following pairs:
Aircraft type Description
I.
Dornier-208 : Maritime
patrol aircraft
II.
IL-76 : Supersonic
combat aircraft
III.
C-17 Globe master
3 : Military transport aircraft
How many of the
pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer – B
65- Artificial
way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
I.
Silver iodide and
potassium iodide
II.
Silver nitrate
and potassium iodide
III.
Silver iodide and
potassium nitrate
IV.
Silver nitrate
and potassium chloride
Answer - A
66- Consider the
following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I.
The exercise of
this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II.
The President can
exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - A
67- Consider the statements:
I.
On the
dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her
office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People
after the dissolution.
II.
According to the
provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on
being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III.
The Speaker of
the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of
the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the
House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen
days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - D
68- Consider the
following statements:
I.
If any question
arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to
disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in
accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II.
There is no
mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - D
69- Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
In India, State Government have no power for
making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor
minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement 2:
In India, the Central Government has the
power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which of the
following is correct is in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1
b)
Both Statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1
c)
Statement 1 is
correct but Statement 2 is not correct
d)
Statement 1 is
not correct but Statement 2 is correct
Answer - D
70- Which
organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law
(NRL) to
tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
a)
The European
Union
b)
The World Bank
c)
The Organization
for Economic Cooperation and Development
d)
The Food and
Agriculture Organization
Answer - A
71- Suppose the
revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue
receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government
budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest
payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the
following statements are correct?
I.
Revenue deficit
is ₹ 20,000 crores.
II.
Fiscal deficit is
₹ 10,000 crores.
III.
Primary deficit
is ₹ 4,000 crores.
Select the
correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - D
72-India is one
of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor
(INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect.
a)
India to Central
Asia to Europe via Iran
b)
India to Central
Asia to China
c)
India has to
South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
d)
India to Europe
through Azerbaijan
Answer - D
73- Consider the
following statements:
Statement 1:
Of the two major ethanol producers in the
world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former producers more
ethanol than the later.
Statement 2:
Unlike in the United States of America where
corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the
principal feedback for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the
following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1
b)
Both Statement 1
and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1
c)
Statement 1 is
correct but Statement 2 is not correct
d)
Statement 1 is
not correct but Statement 2 is correct
Answer - D
74- The World
Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb
temperatures routinely exceed 35C. Which of the following statements best
reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I.
Peninsular India
will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II.
The survival of
animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat
through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the
correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - C
75- A country’s
fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is
receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through
non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary
deficit?
a)
₹ 48,500 crores
b)
₹ 51,500 crores
c)
₹ 58,500 crores
d)
None of the above
Answer - A
76- Which of the
following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th
Finance Commission of India are correct?
I.
It has
recommended grants of the ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to
the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II.
45% of the net
proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III.
₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as
performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural
reforms.
IV.
It reintroduced
tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the
correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
1, 2 and 4
c)
1, 3 and 4
d)
2, 3 and 4
Answer - C
77- Consider the
following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction
and Development (IBRD):
I.
It provides loans
and guarantees to middle income countries.
II.
It works
single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III.
It was
established to help Europe rebuild after the World War 2.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - C
78- Consider the
following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I.
In RTGS, the
settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to
settle payments.
II.
In RTGS, the
customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for
NEFT.
III.
Operating hours
for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2
c)
1 and 3
d)
3 only
Answer - A
79- Consider the
following countries:
I.
United Arab Emirates
II.
France
III.
Germany
IV.
Singapore
V.
Bangladesh
How many
countries amongst the above are there other than India where international
merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
a)
Only two
b)
Only three
c)
Only four
d)
All the five
Answer - B
80- Consider the
following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
I.
It targets
installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II.
The Ministry of
New and Renewal able Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation,
maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III.
It aims to create
more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling,
under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - D
81- With
reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I.
An organization can amend any Central Act.
II.
An Ordinance can
abridge a Fundamental Right.
III.
An Ordinance can
come into effect from a back date.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer – C
82- Consider the
following pairs:
State Description
I. Arunachala Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full- fledged State
How many of the
above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer - C
83- With
reference to India, consider the following:
I.
The Inter-State
Council
II.
The National
Security Council
III.
Zonal Councils
How many of the
above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer – A
84- Consider the
following statements:
I.
The Constitution
of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State
acts in his/her own discretion.
II.
The President of
India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for
his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State
concerned.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - A
85- Consider the
following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under
I.
Separation of Judiciary from the
Executive in the
public service of the state : The Directive Principles of the State
Policy
II.
Valuating and preserving of the rich heritage
of our
composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III.
Prohibition of employment of children
below the
age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer - C
86- Consider the
following statements:
With reference to
the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area
under the Fifth Schedule
I.
The State
Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes
total administration
II.
The Union
Government can take over the total administration of such as areas under
certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - D
87- With
reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Organization Union
Ministry
I.
The National
Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and
Industry
II.
The Coir Board : Ministry
of Heavy Industries
III.
The National
Center for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro,
Small and Medium
Enterprises
How many of the
above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer – D
88- Consider the
following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I.
List I-Union
List, in the Seventh Schedule
II.
Extent of the
executive power of a State
III.
Conditions of the
Governor's office
IV.
For a
constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by
the Legislature of not less than one-half of the States is required before
presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Choose the
correct option
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Answer - A
89- With
reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I.
The Governor of a
State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the
powers and duties of his/her office.
II.
No criminal proceeding
shall be instituted or
continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III.
Members of a
State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of
anything said within the House.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
Answer - D
90. Consider the
following activities:
I.
Production of crude oil
II.
Refining, storage and distribution of
petroleum
III.
Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV.
Production of natural gas
How
many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas
Regulatory Board in our country?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All the four
Answer – D
91- “Sedition has
become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time
I.
The Champaran
Satyagraha
II.
Publicly
violating Salt Law at Dandi
III.
Attending the
Second Round Table Conference in London
IV.
The launch of the
Quit India Movement
Answer – D
92- The famous
female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mahenjo-daro, is made of
a) Carnelian
b) Clay
c) Bronze
d) Gold
Answer - C
93- Who provided
legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura
incident?
a)
C. R Das
b)
Madan Mohan
Malaviya and Krishna Kant
c)
Dr. Saifuddin
Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
d)
M. A. Jinnah
Answer - B
94- Subsequent to
which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed
untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to
include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
a)
The Poona Pact
b)
The Gandhi-Irwin
Agreement (Delhi-Pact)
c)
Arrest of
Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
d)
Promulgation of
the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer - A
95- Consider the
following fruits:
I.
Papaya
II.
Pineapple
III.
Guava
How many of the
above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth
centuries?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer - C
96- Consider the
following countries:
I.
United Kingdom
II. Denmark
II.
New Zealand
III.
Australia
IV.
Brazil
How many of the
above countries have more than four time zones?
a)
All the five
b)
Only four
c)
Only three
d)
Only two
Answer - B
97- Consider the
following statements:
I.
Anadyr in Siberia
and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are
waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different
days.
II.
When it is Monday
in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which are the statements given above is/are
correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer - A
98- Who among the
following was the founder of the ‘Self – Respect Movement’?
a)
‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy
Naicker
b)
Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar
c)
Bhaskarrao Jadhav
d)
Dinkarrao
Javalkar
Answer - A
99- Consider the
following pairs:
Country Resource-rich
in
Botswana : Diamond
Chile :
Lithium
Indonesia : Nickle
In how many of
the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer – C
100- Consider the
following pairs:
Region Country
I.
Mallorca : Italy
II.
Normandy : Spain
III.
Sardinia : France
In how many of
the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All the three
d)
None
Answer – D
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